[RFCI-Discuss] acceptable filtering of RFC2142 mailboxes?

James Ralston qralston+ml.rfci-discuss at andrew.cmu.edu
Mon Jul 3 16:09:54 EDT 2006


On 2006-07-03 at 20:48+02 csmailreport <csmailreport at googlemail.com> wrote:

> On 7/3/06, James Ralston <qralston+ml.rfci-discuss at andrew.cmu.edu> wrote:
> 

> > 550 5.7.1 mixing RFC2142 recipients and non-RFC2142 recipients not
> > permitted; please resend to recipients individually
> > 
> > My read of the rfc-ignorant abuse/postmaster guidelines is that
> > filtering on this basis would *not* be grounds for being listed.
> 
> It's ground for listing -- AOL has been listed at RFCI for this
> specific reason multiple times.
> 
> Refer to:
> http://www.rfc-ignorant.org/tools/detail.php?domain=aol.com&submitted=1146688464&table=abuse
> http://www.rfc-ignorant.org/tools/detail.php?domain=netscape.net&submitted=1142830822&table=abuse
> etc. for details.

That doesn't seem to be quite the same issue.

In those examples, the problem was that the content filtering being
applied to the non-abuse recipient inflicted collateral damage (i.e.,
filtering) on the abuse recipient.  The criteria I proposed does not
rely on any content filtering whatsoever (unless one attempts to argue
that the envelope recipients should also be treated as "content").

However...

> I've had this very discussion with Derek a few weeks ago, and
> basically the only way to be RFC compliant while using email
> contents-based filtering appears to isolate email transactions to
> administrative mailboxes from other recipients by returning
> transient failures (SMTP 421) all other recipients as soon as one
> administrative recipient is mentioned, for instance:
> 
> RCPT TO: <foo at cmu.edu>
> 200 OK
> RCPT TO: <abuse at cmu.edu>
> 421 Abuse-bound mail must come on its own
> 
> etc. or vice-versa (if "abuse" comes first, 421 all subsequent
> recipients)
> 
> We do not do this at the moment (we return 5xx instead as you
> suggested) so we get blacklisted on RFCI on a regular basis for
> this.

That's a bit more work, but certainly doable.  It also has the
advantage that legitimate senders don't have to modify their behavior,
so I think it's a better technical solution.

(Depending on how the recipients are interspersed, of course, it could
take multiple hours to deliver the message to all recipients, but
delivery *should* occur eventually.)

So, is there consensus that this behavior (tempfailing all subsequent
RFC2142 recipients after seeing a non-RFC2142 recipient, or
tempfailing all subsequent non-RFC2142 recipients after seeing an
RFC2142 recipient) is acceptable?  It shouldn't actually result in any
mail being permanently failed, so I'm not sure what objections could
be raised...

Thanks,
James



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